COPYRIGHT KEEN INTERACTIVE 2000
Last Update: 8/2/00
1. Which of the following are true of unicast IP?
a. It consumes resources in a network in proportion to the number of hosts served
b. It can be either TCP or UDP
c. It uses a class D address
d. A server transmitting unicast IP does not need to 慿now?the recipient抯 address
2. Which of the following are true of remote services?
a. They are centralized and therefore require transport across the backbone to reach the user
b. They are common to all users
c. They are on a different VLAN than the user
d. They are typically connected to the user via a layer 2 switching path
3. Which of the following is a form of out-of-band management?
a. Web-based management
b. Console port
c. LAT
d. TELNET
4. Spanning tree protocols puts a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the forwarding state?
a. No frames are forwarded. BPDU抯 are heard.
b. No frames are forwarded. No BPDU抯 are heard.
c. No frames are forwarded. Learning Addresses.
d. Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
5. What security measures does Cisco suggest in the access layer of their recommended campus architecture?
a. Route filtering
b. Cisco recommends no security measures in the access layer
c. Device security such as passwords
d. Port security
6. Telnet access directly to a switch or router command uses what facility?
a. slip
b. server
c. async port
d. line
7. What mechanism can be used to prevent 憆ogue?HSRP routers from asserting high priorities and becoming the active router?
a. MD5 authentication may be used in HSRP messages
b. Plain text authentication may be used in HSRP messages
c. The command 憇tandby (group_number) access-group (access_list)?is used to specify the routers that may participate in an HSRP group
d. Each HSRP router is explicitly configured with the address of the other routers in the group using the command 憇tandby (group_number) (group_member_address)
8. What command will set duplex mode on a set based switch to half?
9. Which of the following are true of a LAN segmented with layer 2 switches?
a. Path determination is based on OSI reference model Layer2 information
b. Path determination is based on OSI reference model Layer3 information
c. Path determination is based on OSI reference model Layer4 information
d. It supports multiple high-speed data exchanges
10. What will a Catalyst switch do with a multicast (in default configuration)?
a. Learn the correct destinations
b. Flood the multicast frames out each port within the VLAN on which it is received
c. Query the IGMP designated router
d. Query the domain to determine multicast group membership
11. Which of the following have a command line interface like the Cisco router IOS?
a. Catalyst 29xx XL
b. Catalyst 2826G
c. Catalyst 6xxx
d. Catalyst 1900/1912
12. What command will show all MLS cache entries for frames sent to IP address 208.67.77.3?
13. Which of the following are true of CGMP?
a. It is enabled on the router using the 慽p cgmp?command
b. It is enabled in interface mode
c. The version of IGMP being run is transparent to the switch
d. It is enabled globally on the router
14. Which of the following are true of MLS caching?
a. Cache entries for flows are aged out by a timer that can only be set in 8 second increments
b. Cache entries for flows age out in 5 minutes by default
c. MLS cache entries are purged if the RP routing table changes
d. Candidate cache entries are aged out in 3 seconds by default
15. Which of the following is true regarding enabling IP routing on an RSM?
a. The command 憂etwork (ip_address)?is entered during interface configuration to enable dynamic routing
b. A dynamic routing protocol is needed to route
c. The command router (routing_protocol)?is used to start a dynamic routing protocol
d. IP routing must be turned on with the command 憆outer ip?
16. The root switch in a spanning tree is chosen by an 8 byte field that has which of these formats?
a. The 8 byte field is a concatenation of the switch supervisor抯 MAC address followed by a 2 byte configurable value. The lowest value wins.
b. The 8 byte field is a concatenation of a configurable 2 byte value followed by switch supervisor MAC address. The lowest value wins.
c. The 8 byte field is a concatenation of a configurable 2 byte value followed by switch supervisor MAC address. The highest value wins.
d. The 8 byte field is a concatenation of the switch supervisor抯 MAC address followed by a 2 byte configurable value. The highest value wins.
17. Which of the following are true of full-duplex ethernet?
a. There is a significant performance increase over half-duplex ethernet
b. More collisions
c. If one host is transmitting, the other must wait for it to finish
d. No collisions
e. Clients must have a full-duplex compatible ethernet card
18. What 憇et based?command can be used to assign network addresses and subnet masks for in-band management interfaces?
a. set net ip
b. set address
c. set interface
d. set network
19. Which of the following are true of gigabit ether?
a. 1000BaseT uses 2 pairs
b. 1000BaseCX operates over UTP copper
c. 1000BaseT operates over Cat5 UTP
d. 1000Base SX operates over multi mode fiber
20. Which of the following are true of the Cisco Catalyst 8500 switch series?
a. The 8500 is suitable for very high density access layer closets
b. The 8500 supports wire speed multicast forwarding
c. The 8500 is suitable for use in a high speed core
d. The 8500 is recommended for multilayer switching in the distribution layer
21. Which of the following are characteristics of the access layer in Cisco抯 recommended campus architecture?
a. high port density
b. optimized for high speed transport
c. security
d. layer 2 filtering
22. What is indicated by an ethernet link state light?
a. The port is operational
b. There is no such light
c. A link state routing protocol is operational
d. The port is active and can hear a link pulse from a connected port
23. Which of the following protocols can use multicast for inter-router communication?
a. RIP2
b. OSPF
c. DVMRP
d. RIP
e. BGP
24. Which of the following are improvements that might be expected from segmenting a flat layer 2 network into VLANs?
a. Reduced broadcasts at each host
b. Increased bandwidth between any two points in the network
c. Reduced maintenance by the network administrator
d. Possibility to introduce layer ?security between users and resources
25. What command will enable PIM and for each group will set the router to sparse mode if there is a defined RP and dense mode if there is no defined RP?
26. What command will show the ports assigned to each VLAN?
27. Which of the following exchange IGMP messages?
a. The server that is sending the multicast
b. The router that is layer 3 forwarding the multicast to a LAN or VLAN where it is being received by multicast capable workstations
c. A host that is receiving the multicast
d. A host on a LAN or VLAN that is carrying a multicast
28. Which of the following are true of TFTP?
a. It can be used for storing and retrieving system images across a network
b. It can be used for remote command line access to a switch
c. It can be used for storing and retrieving configuration files across a network
d. It is inherently insecure because no password is required
29. In multi-level switching (MLS) with an external router, how does the switch know the MAC address to which the first frame is delivered?
a. The switch knows the address through the multi-layer switching protocol
b. The host must be configured with this address (default gateway)
c. The switch must be configured with this MAC
d. None of the above
30. What command will verify connectivity to remote host 105.77.27.3?
31. What command enables Auto RP advertisements sourced from the first loopback address?
32. Which of the following are true of CGMP?
a. IGMP snooping is disabled if CGMP is on
b. Without CGMP a switch must flood multicasts out every port
c. CGMP messages from a router are multicast through a network of Catalyst switches
d. CGMP is an open standard
33. Which of the following are true of Per VLAN Spanning Tree?
a. ISL supports Per VLAN Spanning Tree
b. Per VLAN Spanning Tree only works on Cisco5xxx with software 4.1 or better
c. A significant advantage of PVST in a large campus network is that the choice of the root bridge can be optimized for each VLAN
d. ISL trunking requires Common Spanning Tree
34. What is a virtual LAN?
a. A routed internet
b. A shared physical media
c. A group of ports in the same broadcast domain
d. A shared collision domain
35. Which of the following is true of multicast?
a. A router carrying a multicast group is also a member of the group by default
b. A ping to a multicast group address should be answered only by the designated querier
c. All routers that are members of a multicast group should respond to a ping
d. A traceroute to a group address will show the path to the RP
36. How should enterprise servers be connected in the Cisco campus architecture (choose 2)?
a. To the access layer
b. Directly to a core level switch
c. Via an enterprise server distribution level switch
d. To each switch block via dedicated trunk or virtual cicruit
37. Which of the following are true of multicast routing protocols?
a. Cisco routers can support MOSPF
b. RPF is used in both source tree and shared tree topologies
c. Sparse mode topologies are built based on explicit join messages from subscribers
d. Cisco routers cannot run DVMRP but can interoperate with it
38. Which of the following is true of MLS management interfaces?
a. Cisco recommends only one management interface per RP
b. An MLS management interface is an RP interface that sends MLSP messages
c. The global command for configuring a management interface is 憁ls rp management-interface (interface)? d. If an RP must serve multiple switches, the RP must be directly connected to each
39. Which of the following are true of statically configured PIM rendezvous points (RPs)?
a. Leaf routers are configured with the address of an RP
b. A group can have only one RP
c. RPs are only required in sparse mode
d. The command to configure a router as an RP is a global command
40. Which of the following are true of Uplink Fast?
a. It can be configured per VLAN
b. The recommended use for Uplink Fast is to allow fast reconfiguration of an access switch that is connected to two distribution layer switches
c. If a trunk connecting a switch tot he core fails, Uplink Fast can restore connectivity through a different trunk in microseconds
d. Uplink Fast cannot be used on distribution or core switches
41. Match the command with the platform:
A-time-out 120
B-exec-timeout 120
C-set logout 120
42. What command is used to shut down a command line interface to a set based switch?
43. Which of the following is true about the MaxAge timer?
a. It is always 10 times the BPDU Hello time
b. It is the maximum age of a MAC address in the address cache
c. It defaults to 20 seconds
d. It can be set on any switch
44. What is Cisco抯 recommendation about using autonegotiation for ethernet speed and duplex setting?
a. Not recommended-implementation differences in devices can lead to poor performance
b. Recommended when possible
c. Cisco has no recommendation
45. A network is built using the Cisco campus architecture and MLS. One of the access layer switches carries users on VLANs A, B, and C. Assume that usres on VLAN A should have connectivity to VLAN B and C. There should be no connectivity between VLANs B and C. Which flow mask should be used in the MLS-enabled switch?
a. A destination-IP mask should be used
b. A source-destination-ip flow mask should be used
c. An IP-flow mask should be used
46. Which of these is true about port priority?
a. To select a path to the root bridge a switch chooses the port with the lowest cost path to the root bridge. Ties go the port with the lowest port ID
b. The maximum port priority value is 255
c. The highest priority port always becomes the designated port
d. The command for setting priority on a set based switch is 憇et portcost?
47. Which of the following is true of 慞ort Fast?
a. It supports gigabit ether trunks on 10 MB/s VLANs
b. It is a mechanism for grouping trunks with only one of them active
c. It is a mechanism for bonding trunks together for faster uplinks
d. It streamlines spanning tree initialization of a port
48. Which of the following is true of MLS-SE?
a. A flow, consisting of a conversation between two IP/Port number pairs, occupies a single MLS-SE抯 MLS cache entry
b. If the MLS-SE receives a frame that is not part of a flow recorded in the MLS cache, it forwards the frame to the RP and does nothing else unless the RP forwards the frame back to it
c. The MLS-SE writes MLS cache entries based on a comparison of cache entries for candidate frames forwarded to the RP and frames received from the RP
d. When the RP forwards the frame it also sends forwarding information to the MLS-SE using the MLSP. This information is used to write an MLS cache entry
49. What are the differences between a layer 3 switch and a router?
a. A router uses ASICs for forwarding packets
b. Switches typically have lower latency
c. Routers are typically less expensive per port
d. They perform exactly the same functions
50. In multi-level switching (MLS) with an external router, when does the switch rewrite the destination host抯 IP address?
a. In every frame
b. In a traditional network, layer 2, 3, and 4 devices do not rewrite IP addresses
c. After the first frame has been sent and the switch has a cache entry for the flow
51. Which of the following are true of Multi Layer Switching?
a. The MLSP hello interval is 15 seconds
b. The MLSP messages propagate only between an adjacent switch and RP and not throughout a network
c. Each SE has a globally unique XTAG
d. The MLS-RP sends data to the MLS-SE that is stored by the MLS-SE as a cache entry
52. What command shows the cards in each slot of a modular Catalyst switch?
53. Spanning tree protocol puts a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the learning state?
a. Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
b. No frames are forwarded. BPDU抯 are heard.
c. No frames are forwarded. No BPDU抯 are heard.
d. No frames forwarded. Learning addreses
54. What character is used to indicate the beginning and end of a banner message?
a. //
b. Any character may be used, so long as it is the same at the beginning and end and does not appear in the middle
c. No delimiter is required
d. ?
55. What command will make a VTP client in VTP domain 慶orp?
56. What command enables the Cisco Group Management Protocol?
57. Which of the following are true?
a. The 憇et based?command for setting the cost of port 6, module 3 to 30 is 憇et portcost 3/6 30? b. In most cases, the best way to optimize network topology is through optimal root bridge selection
c. The 慖OS based?command for setting port cost is 慶ost (cost_value)? d. The show spantree command shows the cost of each port
58. The Catalyst 6xxx family of switches issuitable for which part(s) of Cisco抯 campus architecture?
a. Distribution layer
b. Core
c. Access layer
59. Why is MLS switching faster than pure layer three routing?
a. MLS does not rewrite the layer 3 packet header
b. Almost all routers implement substantial functionality in software, while layer 2 switches?designs do not have a CPU in the switching path
c. Layer two operations are inherently faster
d. Fewer devices must be traversed in the network
60. In which layers of the Cisco Campus architecture is gigabit ethernet recommended?
a. Distribution layer
b. Access layer
c. Core
61. Which of these methods of managing a device are 慽n-band?
a. telnet
b. switch or router internal HTTP management server
c. access to the console port via a colocated terminal server
d. SNMP
62. What is indicated by an IP address of 0.0.0.0 for the RP in a multicast routing table display?
a. The router with an mroute table entry that shows an RP at 0.0.0 for a specific group is in fact the RP for that group
b. Instead of using a specific address for the RP, the router forwards packets towards the RP by using its default route
c. RP selection is pending
d. The tree is source-based and no RP will be defined
63. Which of the following is true of the core layer in Cisco抯 campus architecture?
a. Area aggregation
b. Conversation Matched Queuing
c. Layer ?security
d. Optimized for high speed connectivity
64. The STP timer defaults assume a Hello time of two seconds and a network diameter of seven. Which of these are true?
a. It is much easier and safer to configure timers for the network diameter using the 憇et spantree root [dia (diameter)] command instead of manually setting each one
b. Timer values cannot be adjusted
c. Timer values are a compromise of actual experience and are nearly optimal in all situations
d. The timers should be adjusted for networks with diameters not equal to seven
65. Which of the following are true of the 憇how mls?command?
a. It can be used on a switch to show which RPs are supporting it
b. It can be used on a switch to show the MLS cache entries
c. It can be used on an RP to show the cache MLS cache entries it has written to the MLS-SE
d. It can be used on an RP to show which switches an RP is supporting
66. What command logs HSRP messages to the console?
67. Which of these are valid methods for setting login passwords?
a. TACACS configuration of username and password pairs can establish a login password
b. Configuration and dissemination via VTP can establish a login password
c. Local configuration can establish a password that anyone may use
d. NIS configuration of usernames and passwords can establish a login password
68. Which of the following correctly associates fast ethernet physical layer standards with the maximum allowable distances between a host and a switch?
a. 100m for Cat5 UTP
b. 25m for Cat3 UTP
c. 2km for multi-mode fiber
d. 100m for Cat4 UTP
69. Which of these would limit the performance of very large VLANs?
a. An excessive number of broadcasts received at hosts
b. Difficulty in scaling spanning tree to networks with diameter greater than 7
c. Excessive number of collisions degrades the throughput of media
d. Large networks place an excessive burden on layer 3 devices that provide connectivity to other VLANs and networks
70. Which of these is true of PortFast?
a. As an alternative to PortFast, spanning tree can be disabled on ports that connect a single host
b. PortFast should only be used on ports that connect a single host to the network
c. PortFast may be used on trunks if the trunk connects a switch that is not connected to any other switches
71. Which pair of commands would turn on an internal http server for switch configuration and restrict access to a username and password configured on a central security server?
ip http server
ip http authentication tacacs
72. What two ways can be used to provide access to a Route Switch Module command line (assuming the RSM is installed in slot 6)?
a. Connect a terminal (emulator) to the RSM console port
b. Use the command 憇ession 6?from the switch command line
c. Use the command 慶onnect 6?from the switch command line
d. Use the command 憈elnet 6?from the switch command line
73. Which Catalyst 憇et based?command is used to verify a configuration?
a. plot
b. init -6
c. show
d. verify
74. Which of the following would cause a router interface to be placed in an 憃ilist?
a. IP multicast has been explicitly enabled and a host connected by the interface has used IGMP to join a group
b. The interface was manually configured to join a group
c. The interface becomes an 憃perational interace?that becomes administratively up with a good line protocol
d. A PIM neighbor was heard on the interface. IP multicast has not been explicitly enabled or disabled on this router
75. Which of the following are true of Common or Mono Spanning Tree?
a. In a large campus, CST will probably have longer convergence times than Per VLAN Spanning Tree
b. 802.1Q trunking requires CST
c. ISL trunking requires CST
d. Per VLAN Spanning Tree can support manual load balancing
76. What effect will the command 慶lear mls entry source 10.20.120.67?have?
a. Remove support from an RP at 10.20.120.67
b. Clear all MLS cache entries for frames originated by a host at 172.16.1.1
c. This is not a legal command
d. Clear all MLS cache entries learned from frames forwarded by an RP at 10.20.120.67
77. What command would be used on a Catalyst 2900XL switch to configure a description of a port that will be shown when the port status is shown?
78. Which of the following can a command line user perform in privileged mode, but not user mode?
a. View the device configuration
b. Telnet to a remote host
c. View the ip routing table
d. Change the user mode password
79. Assume HSRP is configured on routers A and B with priorities of 300 and 150 respectively. Assume defaults for all other configurable values. Router A becomes the active router, but subsequently reboots and B becomes the active router. When router A comes back up, which of the following will occur?
a. Router B remains the active router until it becomes unavailable, at which time Router A becomes the active router
b. Router B issues a 憆elease?message and becomes secondary
c. Router A issues a 慶oup?message and becomes active
d. Router B issues a 憆esign?message and becomes secondary
80. In what two situations is the 憁ls set enable?command needed on a set-based switch?
a. On an external RP only if mls is explicitly disabled
b. On an internal RP only if mls is explicitly disabled
c. Always, whenever an external RP is used
d. Never
81. Which of the following are true of ethernet (10 mb/s), fast ethernet (100 mb/s), and gigabit ethernet (1000mb/s)?
a. All can operate up to 100m over CAT5 unshielded twisted pair copper
b. All use the same MAC layer
c. All use the same physical layer (layer 1)
d. All can operate in half or full duplex modes
82. What is the function of the VLAN Trunk Protocol?
a. To manage which VLANs will be carried on trunks interconnecting a group of switches
b. To encapsulate frames so that their VLAN association is retained when they pass over a trunk
c. To manage the appearance of each VLAN on each port in a group of switches
d. To negotiate whether the link between two adjacent switches will be a trunk
83. Which of the following are true of configuring MLS and VTP?
a. The VTP domain MUST be configured on the RP before starting MLS on the interface/sub-interface
b. The domain must be specified on every sub-interface on the RP that participates in MLS
c. The switch and RP can be in different domains as long as the same VLANs are defined in each
d. The VTP domain is configured for all sub-interfaces when enabled at the interface level (assuming ISL trunking)
84. Which of the following are true of spanning tree protocols?
a. Source tree protocols are more likely to spread traffic load widely
b. The path between source and destination is almost always direct in a source tree
c. No topology change is needed if the direction of flow reverses in a source tree
d. Source trees can be used by dense mode protocols
85. What command will enable multicast routing on an interface?
86. What switch command will show if the switch is acting as a server, a client, or is transparent to the protocol enabled?
87. What is 憉plink fast?
a. It provides support for gigabit ether trunks on 10 MB/s VLANs
b. It is a mechanism for bonding trunks together for faster uplinks
c. It streamlines spanning tree initialization of a port
d. It is a mechanism for grouping links with only one of them active. The spanning tree sees the group as one link
88. Which of these technologies are supported by Cisco ISL?
a. Serial
b. Token Ring
c. CDDI
d. Ethernet
e. Fast Ethernet
89. Which of the following are true of reserved class D addresses?
a. 224.0.0.0 /24 is reserved for multicasts that are not propagated out of a broadcast domain
b. 224.1.0.0 /24 is used for multicast protocols that must span an entire multicast domain
c. 239.0.0.0 /8 is private space analogous to 10.0.0.0 /8
d. 241.0.0.0 /24 is reserved for inter-domain multicast protocols
90. What command will set duplex mode to 慺ull?on a switch that has an IOS-like command line interface?
91. At what privilege level can a user execute any command?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 5
d. 10
92. What command, when used on a Catalyst 4xxx/5xxx/6xxx switch, will configure a description of a port that will be shown when the port status is down. Configure it for port 10, module 2 and assign 慶entral?as the description?
93. Which of the following is true of VTP modes?
a. Adding a server to a domain with a high configuration revision number stored in non-volatile memory can alter or delete VLANs
b. If VTP is enabled but the mode not specified the switch will be transparent
c. VLANs may be created on VTP clients but they won抰 propagate to any other switch
d. A VTP v2 server can support a vl client but v1 servers will not operate with v2 clients
94. What command will show all MLS cache entries learned from frames routed by the RP at IIP address 18.64.202.1?
95. What command will age out cache entries for flows of 3 frames or fewer in 32 second?
96. The proprietary Cisco Group Management Protocol works with which of these protocol suites?
a. IPX
b. TCP/IP
c. XNS
d. AppleTalk
97. Where must IP multicast be enabled in a router configuration (select two)?
a. It is enabled by default and there is no need to include it in a configuration
b. It is enabled in a separate router config mode (router pim)
c. It must be enabled globally
d. It must be enabled on each interface on which multicast traffic will be received or sent
98. Which of the following are true of EtherChannel?
a. All ports in a trunk must carry the same VLAN or be trunks that carry the same VLANs
b. The Port Aggregation Protocol must be used to bundle ports
c. Spanning tree treats a channel as a single link
d. An Etherchannel is automatically a trunk
99. Which of the following are a good reason to choose a switch to become the spanning tree root?
a. The root switch should close to a VLAN抯 default router to reduce load on interswitch links
b. The root switch should be the one with the lightest processor load
c. The root switch should be at or near the center of the VLAN so that overall performance is maximized
d. It is rarely necessary and not generally recommended to influence the automatic root selection process
100. What command will enable spanning tree on port 2, module 4?
